The SEP entry on situations in natural-language semantics reads:
Situation semantics was developed as an alternative to possible worlds semantics. In situation semantics, linguistic expressions are evaluated with respect to partial, rather than complete, worlds.
Yet elsewhere in the SEP we read,
On the face of it, anyway, it seems quite reasonable to believe that this series [of more and more detailed situations] has a limit, that is, that there is a maximally inclusive situation encompassing all others: things, as a whole or, more succinctly, the actual world.
At any rate, if we can adapt modal metaphysics as such to set theory, as in the work of Hamkins, should we be able to talk of "set-theoretic situations" as well? Hamkins does use this very phrase in another paper of his (about V = L), but I don't know that he's using it in the sense I'm asking about. (Yet he might well be, what with his well-developed modal knowledge.)
- Motivation: my reason for asking this question is that I want the opening to an abstract for a possible essay about a set-theory topic I'm working on to be:
We start in a situation with “relativized” choice (the term “RC” would cover all variations on compromised AC such as countable or dependent choice; here it particularly covers an otherwise unspecified such alternative to (possibly global) AC).
REASON FOR CONFUSION: why is situation semantics an alternative to PWS rather than just a weaker version of the same kind of thing? Maybe I'm confused by my own confusion...